No, it wouldn't—not if it occurs within a commercial enterprise.
Specifically, the law says:
286.2(5)(e) received the benefit in the context of a commercial enterprise that offers sexual services for consideration.
What I understand—and I believe this is the understanding of lawyers who have looked at this—is that if an individual is providing services, including perhaps driving and a receptionist service to an independent sex worker, that person would in fact benefit from the exemption.
But for anyone who provides those services within the context of a brothel, a massage parlour, even a collection of several sex workers working together, that would be a commercial enterprise and it would be criminalized.