So it's the preamble that makes you say.... Just to be clear for me, because you keep saying that it was a nuisance law, what makes you say that it is not half and half now, like part nuisance law—because of the public aspect of it when they do it in public—and the other part where they criminalize the client?
Because if it's based on the preamble, for me the preamble will be useful for the courts. If the disposition is not clear, then they'll go to the interpretation. If they don't have to go to the interpretation, they'll look at the section, at the clause inside the Criminal Code, and that's it. The preamble will not be included in the Criminal Code.