I don't believe that would be necessary, in the sense that consent is a matter of fact in determination. It would only become an issue if there were a charge laid and if there were evidence that the consent was revoked. I think it would probably have to be in writing, and again the amendment is clear to make sure it's clear whether or not there was consent in writing. So if the defendant could produce, in writing, the fact that the consent was revoked in whole or in part, and he is within that parameter, then there would be no basis for the charge or conviction.
Certainly, in my view, in the way the motion is worded, it is revocable.