I am wondering about the inconsistency between this clause and the existing section of the Criminal Code. I assume that if I'm incredibly lenient, we could then propose another amendment to amend that section of the Criminal Code as well, but given the fact that the court would have to impose a sentence in order to get there, is there any possibility that someone who has not been convicted would be touched by the word “accused” in (b)? The court must be imposing a sentence in order to get there.
I agree that the word “offender” is better, but I'm just wondering about having the same paragraphs in two sections of the Criminal Code with inconsistent wording.
Mr. Davies.