Right, but I'm trying to understand situations where someone did not transmit but they engaged in very blameworthy conduct, whether it be a failure to comply with public health interventions, whether they took advantage of someone who was vulnerable deliberately, or whether they actively misrepresented their HIV status and they were not on antiretrovirals and it was not a situation where they were engaging in oral sex, three or four circumstances where the science is pretty clear that the likelihood of transmission is next to nil or very, very little. In both situations where there is a significant risk and the individual engages in blameworthy conduct but there isn't actual transmission, then how do you justify the fact that in those circumstances no criminal charges would be laid, but in another circumstance where an individual does the exactly same thing and there's actual transmission, they're up on a criminal charge? I'm just trying to understand the distinction.
On May 14th, 2019. See this statement in context.