Sure.
As for certainty, I would say it's up to the courts to determine. If an offence falls within the definition that's proposed, then that test has been passed. I'm not sure what else to say on that. If an act of torture has taken place, if it is found that an offender has carried out a crime that matches with the definition that is proposed, then it should be provable in court. I don't think it creates any negative consequence from a legal perspective. I don't think it causes a burden issue at all.
Colleagues, that's my humble perspective. I've enjoyed the back and forth—I really have. That's a humble perspective, and you're free to debate it between yourselves whenever you like.