To jump in for one second, I think what happened was that in the original position it was advocated.... Mr. Fragiskatos understood it was coming from the Department of Justice. There was an argument that under international law, having two inconsistent definitions of torture created an international issue, so he tried to synchronize them. It sounds to me that that's not the issue. T
he issue for you, which obviously makes sense, is that you don't have the same elements in the bill where it's a state actor versus a non-state actor. Just taking 269.1 and replicating it, there will be provisions in there that are inconsistent with what a non-state actor would do. If from a policy point of view everybody agreed with that, going back to the original bill, which had different elements, and calling it a “private torturous act” or a different name that did not say “torture” would remove your issue with potential international confusion. Is that correct?