Let's assume that the idea is to provide an acceptable and valid defence to individuals accused of this type of crime and that it is possible for someone to advance the defence that the self-induced extreme intoxication was not foreseeable. Should we not, at the very least, restrict that foreseeability, as is being done, here?
If it's not restricted, one possibility is that there would be no defence for self-induced extreme intoxication. I might agree with that. I'm not expressing a view one way or the other. I'm trying to consider the matter objectively. Another possibility—