Okay. Suppose someone is reviewing their sentence from 40 years earlier, and sentencing has drastically changed on how an offence is viewed. Would that itself come to be something that could result in a miscarriage of justice or be construed as a miscarriage of justice? Let's say the sentence at the time was within the appropriate range, so the judge who imposed the sentence did not commit an error of law in imposing the sentence. Now, 40 years later, that sentence would be dramatically different. Would that be considered a miscarriage of justice, potentially?
