Specifically, yes, you have right of refusal, but wouldn't you save yourselves a lot of steps—given the fact that there is a significant amount of underfunding for the expansion of the commission—if you had it right in legislation, “without authorization from a person who's been aggrieved” or, based on this subamendment, if a third party could actually make this sort of complaint with authorization from an aggrieved individual? Would that not clarify it a lot better?
It would save you guys a lot of “Yes, we can”, and “How come...?”, and “No, we're not” and “How come you're not?”, and having that battle back and forth, if right in the legislation it said you had to have authorization from the person who is alleged to have been aggrieved in order to pursue this particular matter on their behalf.