I found Mr. Hardie's question entirely relevant.
I am not a lawyer either, but it seems to me that when we are talking about dissuasion, this does not automatically fall under the Criminal Code, for instance in cases where fines are very negligible. One witness, whose name I unfortunately don't recall, told us that if the fine imposed on a large manufacturer is not in the seven-figure range, it does not even impact their day.
This is something that is a disincentive and it is not a criminal matter. If a manufacturer does the math and sees that it costs less to break the law than to respect it, this means that the law does not have a deterrent effect, even if what he is doing is not necessarily criminal. I think that the deterrence refers to a criminal act.
Whatever the case may be, I would have liked a precise answer.