Perhaps I can just summarize. And please, if it's possible, speak to the chair. I know I'm talking up here as well, but I'm trying to listen to everything.
The argument centres around this term, “the last day of advance polling”. I think there may be some opportunity to keep this in there, but again, I don't see how it changes, because ultimately the reference to the last day of advance polling simply refers to the Sunday before, then. Since we've eliminated the Sunday before the actual election day, it's the Sunday of the week before. Am I not correct that this clause then makes just as much sense? Please look at it that way and offer me an opinion.
Mr. Chénier.