I don't know why it would, either. I wonder if it has to do with what the third party would have to prove: that if they have the money, it's part of their own funds and it's there for a period of time. At a certain point, if this foreign money got into the account with their own funds and it was there for a while.... What if, at some point, if there's a 10% threshold, it was used for something in the space of regulated activity? Would a third party be held to account for that after a certain period? Could it be proven that's exactly what they intended to do?
I'm going to have to look this up, because I'm not 100% sure why, but I wonder if it has to do with being able to be fully accountable for that, especially after enough time has gone by.