No. As I said, there is a value in the punitive aspect of it if there's no legitimate dispute. That's why the wording that I suggested in my written brief was that if there is a legitimate dispute, it wouldn't apply. That would be again for the courts to decide as to whether it was a legitimate dispute.
Very often the way this is used is when someone just does not pay, if you have a bar or a restaurant that just doesn't pay. They either don't know or they just refuse to do it and they're hoping they don't get caught. That's not the situation I've been involved in, where you have legitimate disputes as to applicability or calculation. You shouldn't have this punitive provision being used as a cudgel by one side to try to force the other side to settle.