I wouldn't mind getting your opinion on one of the points that we're trying to come to a conclusion on; it's the whole issue around the drug impairment and the ability to define at a certain point in the beginning of the process if there is a concern around whether the individual is impaired to the point that they shouldn't be driving a vehicle. From an experience perspective, you mentioned earlier that there certainly have been times when officers have definitely felt that and have gone through the process based on that suspicion.
How does that process work in terms of, in the past, being able to say we get 60% or 70% of the...? You have determined and confirm that the individual definitely had an amount of drug in their system that did definitely impair their ability to drive. Were they actually then convicted?