Okay.
I believe I heard testimony that if there are two charges, then prosecutors or law enforcement officials would choose the one that's easier to prove. It seems to me that would be the case without a second charge of torture and with just aggravated assault. Why would people choose to prosecute under state-sanctioned torture when they could prosecute under aggravated assault? I wonder if part of that answer might be that there is extraterritoriality regarding aggravated assault.