Okay, but the Criminal Code says that “[E]very one who, by communicating statements in any public place, incites hatred” or, according to another provision, “wilfully promotes hatred”, is liable to imprisonment, but if it's done based on a religious text, that's an acceptable defence.
I know that the example I gave seems rather extreme to us, but it appears to correspond to what I read in the Criminal Code: I am relying on a religious text under which I take the liberty of promoting or inciting hatred.
Do you see a difference, though?
