Thank you very much, Mr. Chair.
Gentlemen, thank you for being here today.
Mr. Dion, I have a question for you. It's a little bit of an esoteric one.
Section 9 of the act reads:
No public office holder shall use his or her position as a public office holder to seek to influence a decision of another person—
That's clear.
—so as to further the public office holder's private interests—
That's clear. That makes all kinds of sense.
—or those of the public office holder's relatives or friends—
That also makes lots of sense, but then it goes on to add:
—or to improperly further another person's private interests.
That lumps the other person into something that would directly benefit the public office holder or his or her family or friends in the same breath. Do you believe the wording should be equivalent in this case?
I'll come to it from the perspective that a public office holder is frequently, as you know, seeking to push government to deliver funding or grants to companies in their riding. They're not doing it for themselves; they're doing it for the benefit of their constituents or their community. How is that equivalent?
In this case we're talking about Mr. Trudeau and SNC-Lavalin. Nobody is alleging Trudeau has any private interest in SNC-Lavalin or that he's benefiting personally or financially from anything that goes to SNC-Lavalin. How are these concepts intertwined? Would it be better if there were some language that related to one's own personal benefit and another clause that dealt with improper dealings related to a third party?
I don't know if you understand the question, but it's been on my mind for a bit.