Okay. I want to clarify that, because I think there might have been some confusion around that.
The reason we need it in this, the instance of Tunisia and Egypt, is that we didn't have a UN resolution. That said, we also have the case of Burma, where we invoked SEMA with no UN resolution. So again, we have to establish here that there are times when SEMA can be used, when there is no UN resolution. Is that correct?