This is for both of you, Madame Legault and Colonel Drapeau.
On the whole question of invoking a ground in the act to deny disclosure where somewhere behind it there's been representation made that parliamentary privilege has been engaged, you have expressed very well why that would be of concern. Nonetheless, there is potentially some overlap in the grounds of exemption under the act and some of the reasons for parliamentary privilege.
Do you have a sense of how much of an overlap there is? If government institutions were very clear that they were exempting this, that they were not disclosing it because of this reason and that they had received some representations related to parliamentary privilege and this was the reason, would that clean it up at all?