Thank you for your kind words about our brief, and thank you for the question.
There are two ways to criminalize causing fear in the context of criminal harassment. One is subjective fear. That asks this question: Was the person afraid? One is objective: Would a reasonable person be afraid?
Generally, you may not want to criminalize causing subjective fear. What if I don't know that the person is afraid? If I give someone a pen and it makes them afraid, that's “unreasonable”. I'm not going to be criminalized. However, in the context of criminal harassment, there's already a requirement that the accused know that they're causing fear. Once I know.... If my colleague tells me, “I'm very afraid of spiders”, for example, it's unreasonable to be afraid of spiders, but I know it's the case. In the case of criminal harassment, it's often intimate partners or former intimate partners, so I would know, intimately, that the person has those fears. Once I exploit those fears and deliberately cause fear to the victim, then the question really is not whether the person was afraid.
In our brief, we do propose to keep both objective and subjective fear. The reason is that there was a case in Quebec where the accused did something that would cause fear—stalked a politician and harassed them—but the politician, instead of being afraid, was angry, and the accused was acquitted. I think that's what the bill is trying to respond to.